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exactly :(

im stuck on B, i literally dont understand what they are asking me to do

I think C is something like: 6/16 [chance of winning half of the bets if winning is as probable as losing] * 18/38 [chance to win any bet]

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A) P = 18/38

 

B) Betting on read, chances of winning = 18/38, and losing chance is 20/38, therefore distributions:

chances of winning 4 times= (18/38)^4

chances of winning 3 times =  (18/38)^3*(20/38) * C4,1

2 times= (18//38)^2 * (20/38)^2 * C4,2

1 time= (18/38)*(20/38) * C4,1

0 time= (20/38)^4

 

C) (18/38)^2 * (20/38)^2 * C4,2

 

D) chances of winning 1 time+ chances of winning 0 time (the value of above calculations).

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I SOLVED THEM

!whooW1


rofl just saw everyes responses. thanks guys!


A) P = 18/38

 

B) Betting on read, chances of winning = 18/38, and losing chance is 20/38, therefore distributions:

chances of winning 4 times= (18/38)^4

chances of winning 3 times =  (18/38)^3*(20/38) * C^4,1

2 times= (18//38)^2 * (20/38)^2 * C^4,2

1 time= (18/38)*(20/38) * C^4,1

0 time= (20/38)^4

 

C) (18/38)^2 * (20/38)^2 * C^4,2

 

D) chances of winning 1 time+ chances of winning 0 time (the value of above calculations).

 

 

yas ur right!!

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That doesn't help me solve B as it's too vague.

I used it for A but not sure if I got it right for C or D.

For the B, the questions asks for distributions. Therefore the formula , P(winning)^n*C(n,r)*P(losing)^n-1 for each chances.

 

 

 

I SOLVED THEM

!whooW1

 

rofl just saw everyes responses. thanks guys!

 

 

 

yas ur right!!

lol good luck

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oh ok

how far off was I on C and D?

Quite off. The C can also be solved by using distribution formula. So chances of winning 2 times is P(winning)^2*P(losing)^2*C(4,2).

 

For D, it says fewer than "2" of the 4 plays, therefore it's just addition of the 1 and 0 winning chances.

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Quite off. The C can also be solved by using distribution formula. So chances of winning 2 times is P(winning)^2*P(losing)^2*C(4,2).

 

For D, it says fewer than "2" of the 4 plays, therefore it's just addition of the 1 and 0 winning chances.

We were only taught really basic statistical probability  :rlytearpls:

Why the C(4,2)?

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We were only taught really basic statistical probability  :rlytearpls:

Why the C(4,2)?

Awww these are all taught in schools here. :ohbi:

Binomial coefficients, where C stands for combination. C(n,r), n is a superscript on the left side whereas r is a subscript on the right side. n stands for number of trials, r is number of success.

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Awww these are all taught in schools here. :ohbi:

Binomial coefficients, where C stands for combination. C(n,r), n is a superscript on the left side whereas r is a subscript on the right side. n stands for number of trials, r is number of success.

oh

I need to look it up some time...

What would the chances be for winning 1, 2 and 3 times if you simplify it?

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oh

I need to look it up some time...

What would the chances be for winning 1, 2 and 3 times if you simplify it?

Like what do you mean? Winning three times?

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Like what do you mean? Winning three times?

No, as in, could you simplify this:

 

chances of winning 3 times =  (18/38)^3*(20/38) * C4,1

2 times= (18//38)^2 * (20/38)^2 * C4,2

1 time= (18/38)*(20/38) * C4,1

 

Because as things stand I don't get it.

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No, as in, could you simplify this:

 

chances of winning 3 times =  (18/38)^3*(20/38) * C4,1

2 times= (18//38)^2 * (20/38)^2 * C4,2

1 time= (18/38)*(20/38) * C4,1

 

Because as things stand I don't get it.

Ahh, C=n!/r!(n-r)!, using this formula, C can be solved. 4!=24, 3!=6, 2!=2, 1!=1. So, C(4,1)=4!/1!(4-1)! = 4!/3! = 4.

 

The others are simply solved by using multiplications.

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